IELTS Success

Lucky Seven Is the Only Target

Live

Success Team

Bruno

Plaintiff

Jardim

Culprit

Steven

Culprit

The Plan

MISSION

Score 7 or more

 

ROLES

 

Jardim – mechanics, feedback, exam tips
Steven – practice, feedback, score
Bruno – study, have an open mind, practice, ask key questions

 

AGENDA

 
Listening

Week 01


Monday – 16th [Steven]
Wednesday – 18th [Jardim]

 

Week 02


Monday – 23rd [Steven]
Wednesday – 25th [Jardim]

 

Reading

Week 03


Monday – 30th [Steven]
Wednesday – 1st [Jardim]

 

Week 04


Monday – 6th [Steven]
Wednesday – 5th [Jardim]

 

Speaking


Week 05
Monday – 10th [Steven]
Wednesday – 12th [Jardim]

 

Week 06
Monday – 17th [Steven]
Wednesday – 19th [Jardim]

 

Final Step

 

Week 07
Another full exam
The Exam

 

THE EXAM


Listening – 30 minutes
Reading – 60 minutes
Writing – 60 minutes
Speaking – 11-14 minutes
Each section of test makes up 25% of your score


ISTEPS

 

  1. take a full mock exam – right on day one!
    https://takeielts.britishcouncil.org/take-ielts/prepare/free-ielts-practice-tests/listening
    https://takeielts.britishcouncil.org/take-ielts/prepare/free-ielts-practice-tests/reading/general-training
    https://takeielts.britishcouncil.org/take-ielts/prepare/free-ielts-practice-tests/writing/general-training
    https://takeielts.britishcouncil.org/take-ielts/prepare/free-ielts-practice-tests/speaking
  2. Know yourself: are you a good listener?
  3. Know yourself: are you a good reader?
  4. Know yourself: are you a good writer?
  5. Know yourself: are you a good speaker?
  6. Mocks and practice and feedback until exam day

 

RESOURCES

 

BOOK
  1. Full mock on day one
  2. Use the respective book sections aligned with the topic of the week
  3. Full mock on week 07

Practice Listening Test 01

 
Questions 1-4


Complete the notes below:


Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.


NOTES ON SPORTS CLUB


Example answer:
Name of club: ……….Kingswell


Facilities available:


Golf:
1
2

 

Classes available:


Kick-boxing
3

 

Additional facility:
4 (restaurant opening soon)

 

Questions 5-8


Complete the table below:


Write NO MORE THAN TWO NUMBERS for each answer.

 

MEMBERSHIP SCHEMES

Type

Use of facilities

Cost of classes

Times

Joining fee

Annual subscription fee

GOLD

All

Free

Any time

£250

5. £ 

SILVER

All

6. £

From 7.  to 

£225

£300

BRONZE

Restricted

£3

From 10.30 to 3.30 weekdays only

£50

8. £

 

Question 9 and 10


Complete the sentences below:


Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.


9. To join the centre, you need to book an instructor’s   .
10. To book a trial session, speak to David . (0458 95311).

 

Questions 11-16

What change has been made to each part of the theatre?

Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to questions 11-16.

RIVENDEN CITY THEATRE

A. doubled in number
B. given separate entrance
C. reduced in number
D. increased in size
E. replaced
F. strengthened
G. temporarily closed

 

Part of the theatre

11. box office……………………….. 
12. shop………………………………. 
13. ordinary seats………………….. 
14. seats for wheelchair users…… 
15. lifts………………………………… 
16. dressing room………………….. 

 
Questions 17-20

 

Complete the table below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Play

Dates

Starting time

Tickets available

Price

Royal Hunt of the Sun

October 13th to


17. 

18.pm

For 19.
and 

20. £

 

 

 
Question 21

 

Choose the correct letter; A, B or C.

21. What is Brian going to do before the course starts?

A.  attend a class

B.  write a report

C.  read a book

 

Questions 22-25

 

Complete the table below.

 

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

College Facility

Information

Refectory

inform them 22. about special dietary requirements

23.

long waiting list, apply now

Careers advice

drop-in centre for information

Fitness centre

reduced 24. for students

Library

Includes books, journals, equipment room containing audio-visual materials

Computers

ask your 25. to arrange a password with the technical support team

 

Questions 26-30

 

Complete the summary below.

 

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Business Centre
This Business Resource Centre contains materials such as books and manuals to be used for training. It is possible to hire 26  and 27 . There are materials for working on study skills (e.g. 28  ) and other subjects include finance and 29 .

30  membership costs £50 per year.


 

Questions 31-37

 

Complete the table below.

 

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

 

Social History of the East End of London

Period

Situation

1st-4th centuries

Produce from the area was used to 31  the people of London.

5th-10th centuries

New technology allowed the production of goods made of 32  and .

11th century

Lack of 33  in the East End encouraged the growth of businesses.

16th century

Construction of facilities for the building of 34  stimulated international trade.

Agricultural workers came from other parts of 35  to look for work.

17th century

Marshes were drained to provide land that could be 36  on.

19th century

Inhabitants lived in conditions of great 37  with very poor sanitation.

 

Question 38-40

 

 

Choose THREE letters, A-G

 

Which THREE of the following problems are mentioned in connection with 20th century housing in the East End?

A.  unsympathetic landlords

B.  unclean water

C.  heating problems

D.  high rents

E.  overcrowding

F.  poor standards of building

G.  houses catching fire

 

End of IELTS Listening Test 01

Practice Listening Test 02

 
Questions 1-6


Complete the notes below:


Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

 

Hotel Information

Example answer

Name of accommodation:

 

(0) Carlton Hotel

Length of stay: 3 nights
Ages of children: (1) 
Rooms available: Two en-suites at £270
Price inclusive of: (2) 
Payment method: credit card
Name: Michael (3) 
Date of birth: (4)  1968
Address: 273, Stanton Court, London.
Post code: (5) 
Telephone: 08773 (6) 


Now pause the recording. You have 30 seconds to look at questions 7-10.

Questions 7-10

 

Complete the table below.

Write NO MORE THREE WORDS AND OR/ A NUMBER for each answer

Transport Options
Mode of Transport
Cost
Arrangements Travel time to town
Taxi

Approximately

(7) £ 

Pick up from the hotel 10 minutes
Bus

 

£2 per person

 

Walk down Oak Tree (8)  15 minutes
Walking
——–

Walk through

(9) 

(10) 

 

 
Questions 11-20

 

Choose the correct letter, A, B, or C. for each answer

11 The company expanded in

A  2000

B  2007

C  2014

 

12 The number of permanent staff is

A  75

B  90

C  150

 

13 Most volunteers join the program

A  in Winter

B  in July

C  when it is best for them

 

14 Time Abroad receives all its income from

 partner organisations

 volunteers

 the govenment

 

 

Complete the table.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Volunteering Opportunity Activity

Benefits

English Teaching

Helping with English

(15) 

Significantly improve the (16)  of many children and adults
Agriculture and Farming

Promoting sustainable and

(17)  farming

– Promote (18)  farming methods

– educate local communities

Veterinary Medicine

– Helping the vet with (19) 

– Joining the vet on home visits

– Amazing insights into the country

– See a lot of fascinating animals

– Gain a greater ((20)  of the difficulties in the country

 

 
Question 21-23

 

Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

21 How long did Louise work at a radio station?

A  2 years

B  4 years

C  6 years

 

22 Why does Louise want to do a Masters?

A  To get a promotion in her current job

B  To go into TV

C  Employers like post-graduate qualifications

 

23 How long will it take to do the Masters part-time rather than the modular route?

A  18 months

B  3 years

C  4 years

 

 

Question 24-25

 

Choose TWO letters A-F.

Which two things must Louise have to join the course?

A  A bachelor’s degree

B  Work experience

C  Either a bachelor’s degree or work experience

D  Research experience

E  A completed thesis

F  Motivation

 

Question 26-30

 

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Fees and Funding

The fees are (26)  per year to do the course part-time. The university has a (27)  it can use to fund the most suitable students. You must have a (28)  in place before you can get any funding. The details on funding can be found on the (29)  . That will also have information on eligibility, help available, and (30)  .

 

 

 
Questions 31-35

 

Complete the sentences below

Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer

31. Indian Railways is owned and  by the government of India.

32. There are more than  million people working for Indian Railways

33. The  of the railways from 1857 occurred under Robert Maitland Brereton.

34. The joining of the East Indian Railway with the Great Indian Peninsula Railway led to a network of  kilometres.

35. The route from Bombay to Calcutta, opened in 1870, was an  for the book Around the World in 80 days.

 

Questions 36-40

 

Complete the table below

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer

Period
Situation
1875 – 1899

The network radiated inward from (36)  , Madras, and Calcutta

1900 – 1906

It was not long before various independent kingdoms had their own (37)  .

 

1907 – 1919

When the war finished the railways were suffering from (38)  and 

 

1920 – 1938

Between 1920 and 1929, the railways had a (39)  of around £687 million

 

1939 – 1946

The rolling stock that was moved to the Middle East included locomotives and (40)  .

 

 

End of IELTS Listening Test 02

Practice Listening Test 03

 
Questions 1-5

 

For each Answer write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD AND / OR A NUMBER.

 

Customer Details:

They will be coming to London on (1) 

He’s going with his sister and his (2) 

Tour Details:

Bus Tour

The cost is (3) £  for adults and (4) £  for children

Tours start at 7am and finish at (5) 

 

 

Questions 6-8

 

Choose TWO letters A-G.

6-8. Which three places does the tourist decide he’s likely to see?

A  Buckingham Palace

B  Big Ben

C  Harrods

D  Houses of Parliament

E  Hyde Park

F  St Paul’s Cathedral

G  London Eye

 

Questions 9-10

 

Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

9. How will the tourist buy the tickets?

A  By phone

B  Online

C  On the bus

 

10. How long before he leaves should he buy his tickets?

A  1 week

B  6 weeks

C  3 months

 

 
Questions 11-12

 

Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

11. Each day, pandas need to eat:

A  Very little nutrition

B  12-38 kg of bamboo

C  330 pounds of bamboo

 

12. If pandas are cared for away from the wild, they can live for approximately:

A  6 months

B  14-20 years

C  30 years

 

Questions 13-14

 

Choose TWO letters A-E.

Select two things that are endangering pandas:

A  Public awareness

B  Ecotourism

C  Poaching

D  Other wildlife

E  Building of roads and railroads

 

Questions 15-16

 

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND / OR A NUMBER.

15. What proportion of the panda population in China is protected by reserves?

16. What did the WWF create which encouraged people to support pandas?

 

Questions 17-20

 

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

 

Reasons that pandas may not be worth saving:

They are extremely (17)  to look after

They have a diet that is not (18) 

They get sick easily and are hard to breed

Reasons that pandas should not be allowed to die out:

They are in danger because (19)  are damaging the forests

We should protect their homes because other animals live there

The number of pandas in the wild is (20)  so they will not become extinct

 

 
Question 21-22

 

Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

21 What is the problem that the students are having with the project?

A  The readings are too difficult

B  The readings are not interesting

C  The project is taking too long

 

22 When can extensions be granted?

A  Problems with planning

B  Illness or accidents

C  Scheduling issues

 

Question 23-27

 

What main problem do the students suggest each company has. Match the company to the problem. The first has been done for you.

Choose your answers from the box and write the letters A–G next to questions 23–27.

A knowledge about their customers

B long-term gain

C competition

D customer satisfaction

E employees

F external factors

 

Example

E. Stacks Stationary

 

23.  Princeton Windows

24.  MK Cars

25.  Lakeside Golf

26.  Bryson’s Meats

27.  Mojo’s Music Shop

 

Question 28-30

 

Which opinion does each person express about Mojo’s Music?

Choose your answers from the box and write the letters A-F next to questions 28-30.

A It has good managers

B It has been operating for too long

C There aren’t enough music shops

D It needs more innovative marketing

E It will close down in the end

F It has a good long-term future

 

28.  Sarah

29.  John

30.  Neil

 
Questions 31-40

 

Questions 

Complete the notes below

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

 

Behaviour of Dolphins

 

– almost 40 species of dolphin

– found (31) 

– usually in shallower seas

– carnivores

 

SOCIALISING

– very sociable and live in pods

– super-pods may have more than (32)  dolphins

– have strong social bonds

– help other animals – Moko helped a whale and calf escape from (33) 

– have been known to assist swimmers

 

CULTURE

– discovered in May 2005 that young bottlenose dolphins learn to (34) 

– dolphins pass knowledge from mothers to daughters, whereas primates pass to (35) 

 

AGGRESSION

– dolphins may be aggressive towards each other

-Like humans, this is due to disagreements over (36)  and competition for females

– Infanticide sometimes occurs and the killing of porpoises

 

FOOD

– dolphins have a variety of feeding methods, some of which are (37)  to one population

– Methods include:

  • herding
  • coralling
  • (38)  or strand feeding
  • whacking fish with their flukes

 

PLAYING

– have a variety of playful activities

– common behaviour with an object or small animal include:

  • carrying it along
  • passing it along
  • (39)  away from another dolphin
  • throwing it out the water

– may harass other animals

– playful behaviour may include other (40)  such as humans

 

 

End of IELTS Listening Test 03

Practice Listening Test 04

 
Questions 1-10

 

Complete the form below

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND / OR NUMBERS for each answer.

 

Host Family Applicant

Example: Name 

Answer: Jenny Chan

Present Address: Sea View Guesthouse 1.  

Day time telephone number:  2237676

[N.B. best time to contact is 2. ]

Age: 19

Intended length of stay: 3. 

Occupation while in UK: Student  

General Level of English: 4. 

Preferred location: In the 5. 

Special diet: 6. 

Other requirements:

  • Own facilities
  • Own television
  • 7. 
  • to be 8. 

Maximum price to be 9. £ per week

Preferred starting date: 10. 

 

 

 
Questions 11-13

 

Complete the sentences below

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

11. The next meeting of the soccer club will be in the  in King’s Park on 2 July.

12. The first event is a  .

13. At the final dinner, players recieve  .

 

 

Questions 14-17

 

Complete the table below

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND / OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Competition  Number of Teams Games Begin Training Session (In Kings Park)
Junior  14.  8.30am 15. 
Senior 16.  2.00pm 17. 

 

 

Questions 18-20

 

Complete the table

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Name of Office Bearer Responsibility
Robert Young: President To manage meetings
Gina Costello: Treasurer to 18.
David West: Secretary to 19.
Jason Dokic: Head Coach to 20.

 

Show / hide answers

 

 

 
Question 21-24

 

Complete the notes below

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Box Telecom

Problems: been affected by

  • drop in 21. 
  • growing 22. 
  • delays due to a strike

Causes of problems:

  • high 23. 
  • lack of good 24. 

 

Question 25-27



Choose the correct letter, AB, or C.

25. What does Karin think the company will do?

 look for private investors
 accept a takeover offer
 issue some new shares

26. How does the tutor suggest the company can recover?

 by appointing a new managing director
 by changing the way it is organised
 by closing some of its retail outlets

27. The tutor wants Jason and Karin to produce a report which

 offers a solution to Box Telecom’s problems
 analyses the UK market
 compares different companies

 

 

Question 28-30

 

Which opinion does each person express about Box Telecom?


  1. its workers are motivated
  2. it has too little investment
  3. it will overcome its problems
  4. its marketing plan needs improvement
  5. is is old-fashioned
  6. it has strong marketing managers 

 

28. Karin       

29. Jason       

30. the tutor  

 
Questions 31-36

 

Choose the correct letter, AB, or C.

31. During the first week of term, students are invited to

 be shown round the library by the librarian
 listen to descriptions of library resources
 do an intensive course in the computer centre

 

32. The speaker warns the students that

 internet materials can be unreliable
 downloaded information must be acknowledged
 computer access may be limited at times

 

33. The library is acquiring more CDs as a resource because

 they are a cheap source of information
 they take up very little space
 they are more up-to-date than the reference books

 

34. Students are encouraged to use journals online because

 the articles do not need to be returned to the shelves
 reading online is cheaper than photocopying articles
 the stock of printed articles is to be reduced

 

35. Why might some students continue to use reference books?

 they can be taken away from the library
 they provide information unavailable elsewhere
 they can be borrowed for an extended loan period

 

36. What is the responsibility of the Training Supervisor?

 to supervise and support library staff
 to provide orientation to the library facilities
 to identify needs and inform section managers

 

 

Questions 37-40

 

Which section of the university will help postgraduate students with their dissertation in the following ways?

  1. the postgraduate’s own department or tutor
  2. library staff
  3. another section of the university

Write the correct letter, A, B, or C, next to questions 37-40.

37. training in specialised computer programs 

38. advising on bibliography presentation        

39. checking the draft of the dissertation        

40. providing language support                     

 

End of IELTS Listening Test 04

Practice Reading Test 01

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1–13, which are based on Reading Passage 1 below.

 

Electroreception

 

A   Open your eyes in sea water and it is difficult to see much more than a murky, bleary green colour. Sounds, too, are garbled and difficult to comprehend. Without specialised equipment humans would be lost in these deep sea habitats, so how do fish make it seem so easy? Much of this is due to a biological phenomenon known as electroreception – the ability to perceive and act upon electrical stimuli as part of the overall senses. This ability is only found in aquatic or amphibious species because water is an efficient conductor of electricity.

 

B   Electroreception comes in two variants. While all animals (including humans) generate electric signals, because they are emitted by the nervous system, some animals have the ability – known as passive electroreception – to receive and decode electric signals generated by other animals in order to sense their location. 

 

C   Other creatures can go further still, however. Animals with active electroreception possess bodily organs that generate special electric signals on cue. These can be used for mating signals and territorial displays as well as locating objects in the water. Active electroreceptors can differentiate between the various resistances that their electrical currents encounter. This can help them identify whether another creature is prey, predator or something that is best left alone. Active electroreception has a range of about one body length – usually just enough to give its host time to get out of the way or go in for the kill.

 

D   One fascinating use of active electroreception – known as the Jamming Avoidance Response mechanism – has been observed between members of some species known as the weakly electric fish. When two such electric fish meet in the ocean using the same frequency, each fish will then shift the frequency of its discharge so that they are transmitting on different frequencies. Doing so prevents their electroreception faculties from becoming jammed. Long before citizens’ band radio users first had to yell “Get off my frequency!” at hapless novices cluttering the air waves, at least one species had found a way to peacefully and quickly resolve this type of dispute. 

 

E   Electroreception can also play an important role in animal defences. Rays are one such example. Young ray embryos develop inside egg cases that are attached to the sea bed. The embryos keep their tails in constant motion so as to pump water and allow them to breathe through the egg’s casing. If the embryo’s electroreceptors detect the presence of a predatory fish in the vicinity, however, the embryo stops moving (and in so doing ceases transmitting electric currents) until the fish has moved on. Because marine life of various types is often travelling past, the embryo has evolved only to react to signals that are characteristic of the respiratory movements of potential predators such as sharks.

 

F   Many people fear swimming in the ocean because of sharks. In some respects, this concern is well grounded – humans are poorly equipped when it comes to electroreceptive defence mechanisms.  Sharks, meanwhile, hunt with extraordinary precision. They initially lock onto their prey through a keen sense of smell (two thirds of a shark’s brain is devoted entirely to its olfactory organs). As the shark reaches proximity to its prey, it tunes into electric signals that ensure a precise strike on its target; this sense is so strong that the shark even attacks blind by letting its eyes recede for protection. 

 

G   Normally, when humans are attacked it is purely by accident. Since sharks cannot detect from electroreception whether or not something will satisfy their tastes, they tend to “try before they buy”, taking one or two bites and then assessing the results (our sinewy muscle does not compare well with plumper, softer prey such as seals). Repeat attacks are highly likely once a human is bleeding, however; the force of the electric field is heightened by salt in the blood which creates the perfect setting for a feeding frenzy.  In areas where shark attacks on humans are likely to occur, scientists are exploring ways to create artificial electroreceptors that would disorient the sharks and repel them from swimming beaches.  

 

H   There is much that we do not yet know concerning how electroreception functions. Although researchers have documented how electroreception alters hunting, defence and communication systems through observation, the exact neurological processes that encode and decode this information are unclear. Scientists are also exploring the role electroreception plays in navigation. Some have proposed that salt water and magnetic fields from the Earth’s core may interact to form electrical currents that sharks use for migratory purposes. 

 

Questions 1–6

 

Reading Passage 1 has eight paragraphs, A–H.

 

Which paragraph contains the following information?

 

Write the correct letter, A–H, in boxes 1–6 on your answer sheet.

 

1. how electroreception can be used to help fish reproduce

 

2. a possible use for electroreception that will benefit humans

3. the term for the capacity which enables an animal to pick up but not send out electrical signals

4. why only creatures that live in or near water have electroreceptive abilities

5. how electroreception might help creatures find their way over long distances

6. a description of how some fish can avoid disrupting each other’s electric signals

 

1 –

2 –

3 –

4 –

5 –

6 –

 

Questions 7–9

 

Label the diagram.

 

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.

 

Write your answers in boxes 7–9 on your answer sheet.

 

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

 

Shark’s 7 ………………… alert the young ray to its presence

Embryo moves its 8 ………………… in order to breathe

Embryo stops sending 9 ………………… when predator close by

AC Reading section 1 diagram

 

7 –

8 –

9 –

 

Questions 10–13

 

Complete the summary below.

 

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE words from the passage for each answer.

 

Write your answers in boxes 10–13 on your answer sheet.

 

Shark Attack

 

A shark is a very effective hunter. Firstly, it uses its 10 ……………….. to smell its target. When the shark gets close, it uses 11 ……………….. to guide it toward an accurate attack. Within the final few feet the shark rolls its eyes back into its head. Humans are not popular food sources for most sharks due to their 12 …………………  Nevertheless, once a shark has bitten a human, a repeat attack is highly possible as salt from the blood increases the intensity of the 13 ………………… 

 

10 –

11 –

12 –

13 –

 

 

This is the second section of your IELTS Academic Reading test. You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14–27, which are based on Reading Passage 2 below.

 

Fair games?

 

For seventeen days every four years the world is briefly arrested by the captivating, dizzying spectacle of athleticism, ambition, pride and celebration on display at the Summer Olympic Games. After the last weary spectators and competitors have returned home, however, host cities are often left awash in high debts and costly infrastructure maintenance. The staggering expenses involved in a successful Olympic bid are often assumed to be easily mitigated by tourist revenues and an increase in local employment, but more often than not host cities are short changed and their taxpayers for generations to come are left settling the debt.

 

Olympic extravagances begin with the application process. Bidding alone will set most cities back about $20 million, and while officially bidding only takes two years (for cities that make the shortlist), most cities can expect to exhaust a decade working on their bid from the moment it is initiated to the announcement of voting results from International Olympic Committee members. Aside from the financial costs of the bid alone, the process ties up real estate in prized urban locations until the outcome is known. This can cost local economies millions of dollars of lost revenue from private developers who could have made use of the land, and can also mean that particular urban quarters lose their vitality due to the vacant lots. All of this can be for nothing if a bidding city does not appease the whims of IOC members – private connections and opinions on government conduct often hold sway (Chicago’s 2012 bid is thought to have been undercut by tensions over U.S. foreign policy).   

 

Bidding costs do not compare, however, to the exorbitant bills that come with hosting the Olympic Games themselves. As is typical with large-scale, one-off projects, budgeting for the Olympics is a notoriously formidable task. Los Angelinos have only recently finished paying off their budget-breaking 1984 Olympics; Montreal is still in debt for its 1976 Games (to add insult to injury, Canada is the only host country to have failed to win a single gold medal during its own Olympics). The tradition of runaway expenses has persisted in recent years. London Olympics managers have admitted that their 2012 costs may increase ten times over their initial projections, leaving tax payers 20 billion pounds in the red.  

 

Hosting the Olympics is often understood to be an excellent way to update a city’s sporting infrastructure. The extensive demands of Olympic sports include aquatic complexes, equestrian circuits, shooting ranges, beach volleyball courts, and, of course, an 80,000 seat athletic stadium. Yet these demands are typically only necessary to accommodate a brief influx of athletes from around the world. Despite the enthusiasm many populations initially have for the development of world-class sporting complexes in their home towns, these complexes typically fall into disuse after the Olympic fervour has waned. Even Australia, home to one of the world’s most sportive populations, has left its taxpayers footing a $32 million-a-year bill for the maintenance of vacant facilities.

 

Another major concern is that when civic infrastructure developments are undertaken in preparation for hosting the Olympics, these benefits accrue to a single metropolitan centre (with the exception of some outlying areas that may get some revamped sports facilities). In countries with an expansive land mass, this means vast swathes of the population miss out entirely. Furthermore, since the International Olympic Committee favours prosperous “global” centres (the United Kingdom was told, after three failed bids from its provincial cities, that only London stood any real chance at winning), the improvement of public transport, roads and communication links tends to concentrate in places already well-equipped with world-class infrastructures. Perpetually by-passing minor cities creates a cycle of disenfranchisement: these cities never get an injection of capital, they fail to become first-rate candidates, and they are constantly passed over in favour of more secure choices.  

 

Finally, there is no guarantee that an Olympics will be a popular success. The “feel good” factor that most proponents of Olympic bids extol (and that was no doubt driving the 90 to 100 per cent approval rates of Parisians and Londoners for their cities’ respective 2012 bids) can be an elusive phenomenon, and one that is tied to that nation’s standing on the medal tables. This ephemeral thrill cannot compare to the years of disruptive construction projects and security fears that go into preparing for an Olympic Games, nor the decades of debt repayment that follow (Greece’s preparation for Athens 2004 famously deterred tourists from visiting the country due to widespread unease about congestion and disruption). 

 

There are feasible alternatives to the bloat, extravagance and wasteful spending that comes with a modern Olympic Games. One option is to designate a permanent host city that would be re-designed or built from scratch especially for the task. Another is to extend the duration of the Olympics so that it becomes a festival of several months. Local businesses would enjoy the extra spending and congestion would ease substantially as competitors and spectators come and go according to their specific interests. Neither the “Olympic City” nor the extended length options really get to the heart of the issue, however. Stripping away ritual and decorum in favour of concentrating on athletic rivalry would be preferable.

 

Failing that, the Olympics could simply be scrapped altogether. International competition could still be maintained through world championships in each discipline. Most of these events are already held on non-Olympic years anyway – the International Association of Athletics Federations, for example, has run a biennial World Athletics Championship since 1983 after members decided that using the Olympics for their championship was no longer sufficient. Events of this nature keep world-class competition alive without requiring Olympic-sized expenses. 

 

Questions 14–18

 

Complete each sentence with the correct ending, A–K, below.

 

Write the correct letter, A–K, in boxes 14–18 on your answer sheet.

 

14. Bids to become a host city 

15. Personal relationships and political tensions 

16. Cost estimates for the Olympic Games

17. Purpose-built sporting venues

18. Urban developments associated with the Olympics

A. often help smaller cities to develop basic infrastructure.

B.  tend to occur in areas where they are least needed.

C. require profitable companies to be put out of business.

D. are often never used again once the Games are over.

E. can take up to ten years to complete.

F. also satisfy needs of local citizens for first-rate sports facilities.

G. is usually only successful when it is from a capital city.

H. are closely related to how people feel emotionally about the Olympics.

I. are known for being very inaccurate.

J. often underlie the decisions of International Olympic Committee members.

K. are holding back efforts to reform the Olympics.

 

14 –

15 –

16 –

17 –

18 –

 

Questions 19–25

 

Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 2?

 

In boxes 19–25 on your answer sheet, write  

 

True – if the statement agrees with the information

False – if the statement contradicts the information

Not Given – if there is no information on this

 

19. Residents of host cities have little use for the full range of Olympic facilities. 

20. Australians have still not paid for the construction of Olympic sports facilities.

21. People far beyond the host city can expect to benefit from improved infrastructure.

22. It is difficult for small cities to win an Olympic bid.

23. When a city makes an Olympic bid, a majority of its citizens usually want it to win.

24. Whether or not people enjoy hosting the Olympics in their city depends on how athletes from their country perform in Olympic events.

25. Fewer people than normal visited Greece during the run up to the Athens Olympics.

 

19 –

20 –

21 –

22 –

23 –

24 –

25 –

 

Questions 26 and 27

 

Choose TWO letters, A–E.

 

Write the correct letters in boxes 26 and 27 on your answer sheet.

 

Which TWO of the following does the author propose as alternatives to the current Olympics?

 

A. The Olympics should be cancelled in favour of individual competitions for each sport.

B. The Olympics should focus on ceremony rather than competition.

C. The Olympics should be held in the same city every time. 

D. The Olympics should be held over a month rather than seventeen days.

E. The Olympics should be made smaller by getting rid of unnecessary and unpopular sports. 

 

26 –

27 –

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 28–40, which are based on Reading Passage 3 below.

 

Time Travel

 

Time travel took a small step away from science fiction and toward science recently when physicists discovered that sub-atomic particles known as neutrinos – progeny of the sun’s radioactive debris – can exceed the speed of light. The unassuming particle – it is electrically neutral, small but with a “non-zero mass” and able to penetrate the human form undetected – is on its way to becoming a rock star of the scientific world.

 

Researchers from the European Organisation for Nuclear Research (CERN) in Geneva sent the neutrinos hurtling through an underground corridor toward their colleagues at the Oscillation Project with Emulsion-Tracing Apparatus (OPERA) team 730 kilometres away in Gran Sasso, Italy. The neutrinos arrived promptly – so promptly, in fact, that they triggered what scientists are calling the unthinkable – that everything they have learnt, known or taught stemming from the last one hundred years of the physics discipline may need to be reconsidered. 

 

The issue at stake is a tiny segment of time – precisely sixty nanoseconds (which is sixty billionths of a second). This is how much faster than the speed of light the neutrinos managed to go in their underground travels and at a consistent rate (15,000 neutrinos were sent over three years). Even allowing for a margin of error of ten billionths of a second, this stands as proof that it is possible to race against light and win. The duration of the experiment also accounted for and ruled out any possible lunar effects or tidal bulges in the earth’s crust.

 

Nevertheless, there’s plenty of reason to remain sceptical. According to Harvard University science historian Peter Galison, Einstein’s relativity theory has been “pushed harder than any theory in the history of the physical sciences”. Yet each prior challenge has come to no avail, and relativity has so far refused to buckle. 

 

So is time travel just around the corner? The prospect has certainly been wrenched much closer to the realm of possibility now that a major physical hurdle – the speed of light – has been cleared. If particles can travel faster than light, in theory travelling back in time is possible. How anyone harnesses that to some kind of helpful end is far beyond the scope of any modern technologies, however, and will be left to future generations to explore.

 

Certainly, any prospective time travellers may have to overcome more physical and logical hurdles than merely overtaking the speed of light. One such problem, posited by René Barjavel in his 1943 text Le Voyageur Imprudent is the so-called grandfather paradox. Barjavel theorised that, if it were possible to go back in time, a time traveller could potentially kill his own grandfather. If this were to happen, however, the time traveller himself would not be born, which is already known to be true. In other words, there is a paradox in circumventing an already known future; time travel is able to facilitate past actions that mean time travel itself cannot occur. 

 

Other possible routes have been offered, though. For Igor Novikov, astrophysicist behind the 1980s’ theorem known as the self-consistency principle, time travel is possible within certain boundaries. Novikov argued that any event causing a paradox would have zero probability. It would be possible, however, to “affect” rather than “change” historical outcomes if travellers avoided all inconsistencies. Averting the sinking of the Titanic, for example, would revoke any future imperative to stop it from sinking – it would be impossible. Saving selected passengers from the water and replacing them with realistic corpses would not be impossible, however, as the historical record would not be altered in any way. 

 

A further possibility is that of parallel universes. Popularised by Bryce Seligman DeWitt in the 1960s (from the seminal formulation of Hugh Everett), the many-worlds interpretation holds that an alternative pathway for every conceivable occurrence actually exists. If we were to send someone back in time, we might therefore expect never to see him again – any alterations would divert that person down a new historical trajectory. 

 

A final hypothesis, one of unidentified provenance, reroutes itself quite efficiently around the grandfather paradox. Non-existence theory suggests exactly that – a person would quite simply never exist if they altered their ancestry in ways that obstructed their own birth. They would still exist in person upon returning to the present, but any chain reactions associated with their actions would not be registered. Their “historical identity” would be gone.

 

So, will humans one day step across the same boundary that the neutrinos have? World-renowned astrophysicist Stephen Hawking believes that once spaceships can exceed the speed of light, humans could feasibly travel millions of years into the future in order to repopulate earth in the event of a forthcoming apocalypse.  This is because, as the spaceships accelerate into the future, time would slow down around them (Hawking concedes that bygone eras are off limits – this would violate the fundamental rule that cause comes before effect). 

 

Hawking is therefore reserved yet optimistic. “Time travel was once considered scientific heresy, and I used to avoid talking about it for fear of being labelled a crank. These days I’m not so cautious.”

 

Questions 28–33

 

Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 3?

 

In boxes 28–33 on your answer sheet, write  

 

True – if the statement agrees with the information

False – if the statement contradicts the information

Not Given – if there is no information on this

 

28. It is unclear where neutrinos come from. 

29. Neutrinos can pass through a person’s body without causing harm.

30. It took scientists between 50-70 nanoseconds to send the neutrinos from Geneva to Italy.

31. Researchers accounted for effects the moon might have had on the experiment.

32. The theory of relativity has often been called into question unsuccessfully.

33. This experiment could soon lead to some practical uses for time travel

 

28 –

29 –

30 –

31 –

32 –

33 –

 

Questions 34–39

 

Complete the table below.

 

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.

 

Write your answers in boxes 34–39 on your answer sheet.

Original Theorist Theory Principle
 René Barjavel  Grandfather paradox  Time travel would allow for 34 …………… that would actually make time travel impossible.
 Igor Novikov  Self-consistency principle  It is only possible to alter history in ways that result in no 35 ………………… .
 36 ………………  Many-worlds interpretation  Each possible event has an 37 …………………, so a time traveller changing the past would simply end up in a different branch of history than the one he left.
 Unknown  38 ………………  If a time traveller changed the past to prevent his future life, he would not have a 39 ………………… as the person never existed.

 

34 –

35 –

36 –

37 –

38 –

39 –

 

Question 40

 

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

 

Write the correct letter in box 40 on your answer sheet.

 

Stephen Hawking has stated that 

 

A. Human time travel is theoretically possible, but is unlikely to ever actually occur.

B. Human time travel might be possible, but only moving backward in time.  

C. Human time travel might be possible, but only moving forward in time.

D. All time travel is impossible.

 

40 –

Practice Reading Test 02

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1–13, which are based on Reading Passage 1 below.

 

A bar at the folies (Un bar aux folies)

 

 One of the most critically renowned paintings of the 19th-century modernist movement is the French painter Edouard Manet’s masterwork, A Bar at the Folies. Originally belonging to the composer Emmanuel Chabrier, it is now in the possession of The Courtauld Gallery in London, where it has also become a favourite with the crowds.

 

B  The painting is set late at night in a nineteenth-century Parisian nightclub. A barmaid stands alone behind her bar, fitted out in a black bodice that has a frilly white neckline, and with a spray of flowers sitting across her décolletage. She rests her hands on the bar and gazes out forlornly at a point just below the viewer, not quite making eye contact. Also on the bar are some bottles of liquor and a bowl of oranges, but much of the activity in the room takes place in the reflection of a mirror behind the barmaid. Through this mirror we see an auditorium, bustling with blurred figures and faces: men in top hats, a woman examining the scene below her through binoculars, another in long gloves, even the feet of a trapeze artist demonstrating acrobatic feats above his adoring crowd. In the foreground of the reflection a man with a thick moustache is talking with the barmaid. 

 

C  Although the Folies (-Bergère) was an actual establishment in late nineteenth-century Paris, and the subject of the painting was a real barmaid who worked there, Manet did not attempt to recapture every detail of the bar in his rendition. The painting was largely completed in a private studio belonging to the painter, where the barmaid posed with a number of bottles, and this was then integrated with quick sketches the artist made at the Folies itself. 

 

D  Even more confounding than Manet’s relaxed attention to detail, however, is the relationship in the painting between the activity in the mirrored reflection and that which we see in the unreflected foreground. In a similar vein to Diego Velazquez’ much earlier work Las Meninas, Manet uses the mirror to toy with our ideas about which details are true to life and which are not. In the foreground, for example, the barmaid is positioned upright, her face betraying an expression of lonely detachment, yet in the mirrored reflection she appears to be leaning forward and to the side, apparently engaging in conversation with her moustachioed customer. As a result of this, the customer’s stance is also altered. In the mirror, he should be blocked from view as a result of where the barmaid is standing, yet Manet has re-positioned him to the side. The overall impact on the viewer is one of a dreamlike disjuncture between reality and illusion. 

 

E  Why would Manet engage in such deceit? Perhaps for that very reason: to depict two different states of mind or emotion. Manet seems to be conveying his understanding of the modern workplace, a place  – from his perspective – of alienation, where workers felt torn from their ‘true’ selves and forced to assume an artificial working identity. What we see in the mirrored reflection is the barmaid’s working self, busy serving a customer. The front-on view, however, bears witness to how the barmaid truly feels at work: hopeless, adrift, and alone.

 

F  Ever since its debut at the Paris Salon of 1882, art historians have produced reams of books and journal articles disputing the positioning of the barmaid and patron in A Bar at the Folies. Some have even conducted staged representations of the painting in order to ascertain whether Manet’s seemingly distorted point of view might have been possible after all. Yet while academics are understandably drawn to the compositional enigma of the painting, the layperson is always likely to see the much simpler, more human story beneath. No doubt this is the way Manet would have wanted it. 

 

Questions 1–5

 

Reading Passage 1 has six paragraphs, A–F.

 

Which paragraph contains the following information?

 

Write the correct letter, A–F, in boxes 1–5 on your answer sheet.

1. a description of how Manet created the painting

2. aspects of the painting that scholars are most interested in

3. the writer’s view of the idea that Manet wants to communicate

4. examples to show why the bar scene is unrealistic

5. a statement about the popularity of the painting 

 

1 –

2 –

3 –

4 –

5 –

 

Questions 6–10

 

Answer the questions below.

 

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.

 

Write your answers in boxes 6–10 on your answer sheet.

6. Who was the first owner of A Bar at the Folies?

7. What is the barmaid wearing?

8. Which room is seen at the back of the painting?

9. Who is performing for the audience?

10. Where did most of the work on the painting take place?

 

6 –

7 –

8 –

9 –

10 –

 

 

Questions 11–13

 

Complete each sentence with the correct ending, A–F, below.

 

Write the correct letter, A–F, in boxes 11–13 on your answer sheet.

11. Manet misrepresents the images in the mirror because he

12. Manet felt modern workers were alienated because they

13. Academics have re-constructed the painting in real life because they

 

 A. wanted to find out if the painting’s perspective was realistic

B. felt they had to work very hard at boring and difficult jobs

C. wanted to understand the lives of ordinary people at the time

D. felt like they had to become different people

E. wanted to manipulate our sense of reality

F. wanted to focus on the detail in the painting

 

11 –

12 –

13 –

 

Remember, you have 60 minutes to complete the Reading test! You should spend about 20 minutes on each of the three sections.

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14–26, which are based on Reading Passage 2 on the following pages.

 

Questions 14–19

 

Reading Passage 2 has six paragraphs, A–F.

 

Choose the correct heading for paragraphs A–F from the list of headings below.

 

Write the correct number, i–ix, in boxes 14–19 on your answer sheet.

 

List of Headings

i. A legacy is established

ii. Formal education unhelpful  

iii. An education in two parts  

iv. Branching out in new directions 

v. Childhood and family life 

vi. Change necessary to stay creative 

vii. Conflicted opinions over Davis’ earlier work 

viii. Davis’ unique style of trumpet playing  

ix. Personal and professional struggles 

 

14. Paragraph A

15. Paragraph B

16. Paragraph C

17. Paragraph D

18. Paragraph E

19. Paragraph F

 

Miles Davis – Icon and iconoclast

An iconoclast is somebody who challenges traditional beliefs or customs


    

A  At the age of thirteen, Miles Davis was given his first trumpet, lessons were arranged with a local trumpet player, and a musical odyssey began. These early lessons, paid for and supported by his father, had a profound effect on shaping Davis’ signature sound. Whereas most trumpeters of the era favoured the use of vibrato (a wobbly quiver in pitch inflected in the instrument’s tone), Davis was taught to play with a long, straight tone, a preference his instructor reportedly drilled into the young trumpeter with a rap on the knuckles every time Davis began using vibrato. This clear, distinctive style never left Davis. He continued playing with it for the rest of his career, once remarking, ‘If I can’t get that sound, I can’t play anything.’

 

B  Having graduated from high school in 1944, Davis moved to New York City, where he continued his musical education both in the clubs and in the classroom. His enrolment in the prestigious Julliard School of Music was short-lived, however – he soon dropped out, criticising what he perceived as an over-emphasis on the classical European repertoire and a neglect of jazz. Davis did later acknowledge, however, that this time at the school was invaluable in terms of developing his trumpet-playing technique and giving him a solid grounding in music theory. Much of his early training took place in the form of jam sessions and performances in the clubs of 52nd Street, where he played alongside both up-and-coming and established members of the jazz pantheon such as Coleman Hawkins, Eddie ‘Lockjaw’ Davis, and Thelonious Monk.

 

C  In the late 1940s, Davis collaborated with nine other instrumentalists, including a French horn and a tuba player, to produce The Birth of Cool, an album now renowned for the inchoate sounds of what would later become known as ‘cool’ jazz. In contrast to popular jazz styles of the day, which featured rapid, rollicking beats, shrieking vocals, and short, sharp horn blasts, Davis’ album was the forerunner of a different kind of sound – thin, light horn-playing, hushed drums and a more restrained, formal arrangement. Although it received little acclaim at the time (the liner notes to one of Davis’ later recordings call it a ‘spectacular failure’), in hindsight The Birth of Cool has become recognised as a pivotal moment in jazz history, cementing – alongside his 1958 recording, Kind of Blue – Davis’ legacy as one of the most innovative musicians of his era.  

 

D  Though Davis’ trumpet playing may have sounded effortless and breezy, this ease rarely carried over into the rest of his life. The early 1950s, in particular, were a time of great personal turmoil. After returning from a stint in Paris, Davis suffered from prolonged depression, which he attributed to the unravelling of a number of relationships, including his romance with a French actress and some musical partnerships that ruptured as a result of creative disputes. Davis was also frustrated by his perception that he had been overlooked by the music critics, who were hailing the success of his collaborators and descendants in the ‘cool’ tradition, such as Gerry Mulligan and Dave Brubeck, but who afforded him little credit for introducing the cool sound in the first place.    

 

E  In the latter decades of his career, Davis broke out of exclusive jazz settings and began to diversify his output across a range of musical styles. In the 1960s, he was influenced by early funk performers such as Sly and the Family Stone, which then expanded into the jazz-rock fusion genre – of which he was a frontrunner – in the 1970s. Electronic recording effects and electric instruments were incorporated into his sound. By the 1980s, Davis was pushing the boundaries further, covering pop anthems such as Cyndi Lauper’s Time After Time and Michael Jackson’s Human Nature, dabbling in hip hop, and even appearing in some movies.

 

F  Not everyone was supportive of Davis’ change of tune. Compared to the recordings of his early career, universally applauded as linchpins of the jazz oeuvre, trumpeter Wynston Marsalis derided his fusion work as being ‘not true jazz’, and pianist Bill Evans denounced the ‘corrupting influence’ of record companies, noting that rock and pop ‘draw wider audiences’. In the face of this criticism Davis remained defiant, commenting that his earlier recordings were part of a moment in time that he had no ‘feel’ for any more. He firmly believed that remaining stylistically inert would have hampered his ability to develop new ways of producing music. From this perspective, Davis’ continual revamping of genre was not merely a rebellion, but an evolution, a necessary path that allowed him to release his full musical potential.

 

14 –

15 –

16 –

17 –

18 –

19 –

 

 

Questions 20–26

 

Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer in Reading Passage 2?

 

In boxes 20–26 on your answer sheet, write

 

Yes – if the statement agrees with the views of the writer

No – if the statement contradicts the views of the writer

Not Given – if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

 

20. Davis’ trumpet teacher wanted him to play with vibrato. 

21. According to Davis, studying at Julliard helped him to improve his musical abilities.

22. Playing in jazz clubs in New York was the best way to become famous.

23. The Birth of Cool featured music that was faster and louder than most jazz at the time. 

24. Davis’ personal troubles had a negative effect on his trumpet playing. 

25. Davis felt that his contribution to cool jazz had not been acknowledged.

26. Davis was a traditionalist who wanted to keep the jazz sound pure.

 

20 –

21 –

22 –

23-

24 –

25 –

26 –

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27–40, which are based on Reading Passage 3 below.

 

A  In the early days of mountaineering, questions of safety, standards of practice, and environmental impact were not widely considered. The sport gained traction following the successful 1786 ascent of Mont Blanc, the highest peak in Western Europe, by two French mountaineers, Jacques Balmat and Michel-Gabriel Paccard. This event established the beginning of modern mountaineering, but the sole consideration over the next hundred years was the success or failure of climbers in reaching the summit and claiming the prestige of having made the first ascent. 

 

B  Toward the end of the nineteenth century, however, developments in technology spurred debate regarding climbing practices. Of particular concern in this era was the introduction of pitons (metal spikes that climbers hammer into the rock face for leverage) and the use of belaying techniques. A few, such as Italian climber Guido Ray, supported these methods as ways to render climbing less burdensome and more ‘acrobatic’. Others felt that they were only of value as a safety net if all else failed. Austrian Paul Preuss went so far as to eschew all artificial aids, scaling astonishing heights using only his shoes and his bare hands.  Albert Mummery, a well known British mountaineer and author who climbed the European Alps, and, more famously, the Himalayas, where he died at the age of 39 attempting a notoriously difficult ascent, developed the notion of ‘fair means’ as a kind of informal protocol by which the use of ‘walk-through’ guidebooks and equipment such as ladders and grappling hooks were discouraged. 

 

C  By the 1940s, bolts had begun to replace pitons as the climber’s choice of equipment, and criticism surrounding their use was no less fierce. In 1948, when two American climbers scaled Mount Brussels in the Canadian Rockies using a small number of pitons and bolts, climber Frank Smythe wrote of their efforts: ‘I still regard Mount Brussels as unclimbed, and my feelings are no different from those I should have were I to hear that a helicopter had deposited its passenger on the summit of that mountain just so that he could boast that he had trodden an untrodden mountain top.’

 

D  Climbing purists aside, it was not until the 1970s that the general tide began to turn against bolting and pitons. The USA, and much of the western world, was waking up to the damage it had been causing to the planet, and environmentalist campaigns and new government policies were becoming widespread. This new awareness and sensitivity to environmental issues spilled over into the rock climbing community. As a result, a stripped-down style of rock climbing known as ‘clean climbing’ became widely adopted. Clean climbing helped preserve rock faces and, compared with older approaches, it was much simpler to practise. This was partly due to the hallmark of clean climbing – the use of nuts – which were favoured over bolts because they could be placed into the rock wall with one hand while climbers maintained their grip on the rock with the other.    

 

E  Not everyone embraced the clean climbing movement, however. A decade later, debates over two more developments were erupting. The first related to the practice of chipping, in which climbers chip away pieces of rock in order to create tiny cracks in which to insert their fingers. The other major point of contention was a process that involves setting bolts in reverse from the top of the climb down. Rappel bolting makes almost any rock face climbable with relative ease, and as a result of this new technique, the sport has lost much of its risk factor and sense of pioneering spirit; indeed, it has become more about muscle power and technical mastery than a psychological trial of fearlessness under pressure. Because of this shift in focus, many amateur climbers have flocked to indoor climbing gyms, where the risk of serious harm is negligible.   

 

F  Given the environmental damage rock climbing can cause, this may be a positive outcome. It is ironic that most rock climbers and mountaineers love the outdoors and have great respect for the majesty of nature and the impressive challenges she poses, but that in the pursuit of their goals they inevitably trample sensitive vegetation, damaging and disturbing delicate flora and lichens which grow on ledges and cliff faces. Two researchers from a Canadian university, Doug Larson and Michelle McMillan, have found that rock faces that are regularly climbed have lost up to 80% of the coverage and diversity of native plant species. If that were not bad enough, non-native species have also been inadvertently introduced, having been carried in on climbers’ boots. 

 

G  This leaves rock climbing with an uncertain future. Climbers are not the only user group that wishes to enjoy the wilderness – hikers, mountain bikers and horseback riders visit the same areas, and more importantly, they are much better organised, with long-established lobby groups protecting their interests. With increased pressure on limited natural resources, it has been suggested that climbers put aside their differences over the ethics of various climbing techniques, and focus on the effect of their practices on the environment and their relationship with other users and landowners.

 

H  In any event, there can be no doubt that the era of the rock climber as a lone wolf or intrepid pioneer is over. Like many other forms of recreation, rock climbing has increasingly come under the fold of institutional efforts to curb dangerous behaviour and properly manage our natural environments. This may have spoiled the magic, but it has also made the sport safer and more sustainable, and governing bodies would do well to consider heightening such efforts in the future.  

 

belaying: fastening or controlling of a climber’s rope by wrapping it around a metal device or another person
   

Questions 27–32

 

Reading Passage 3 has eight paragraphs, A–H.

 

Which paragraph contains the following information?

 

Write the correct letter, A–H, in boxes 27–32 on your answer sheet.

27. examples of the impact of climbers on ecosystems

28. an account of how politics affected rock climbing 

29. a less dangerous alternative to climbing rock faces 

30. a recommendation for better regulation

31. a reference to a climber who did not use any tools or ropes for assistance

32. examples of different types of people who use the outdoors for recreation

 

27 –

28 –

29 –

30 –

31 –

32 –

 

Questions 33–39

 

Complete the flow chart below.

 

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.

 

Write your answers in boxes 33–39 on your answer sheet.

 

A rock climbing time line 

Late 19th century

Some climbers discuss whether pitons and ropes should only be considered 33 ………………..

34 ………….….. calls for guidelines based on unwritten rules which discourage climbing aids.

1940s

New equipment becomes controversial. Frank Smythe says that Mt Brussels is effectively 35 ……………….. because of the techniques that were used in order to scale the mountain.

1970s

36 ……………….. is more environmentally friendly. 37 ……………….. are introduced as a climbing aid.

1980s – today

Climbers discuss the merits of new techniques for making hand holds, and also of 38 ………………….. Many say that climbing is now a test of physical strength and 39 ……………….., rather than of courage.

 

33 –

34 –

35 –

36 –

37 –

38 –

39 –

 

Question 40

 

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

 

Write the correct letter in box 40 on your answer sheet.

 

Choose the most appropriate title for the reading passage.

A. A history of rock climbing

B. Ethics and issues in rock climbing

C. Current trends in rock climbing

D. Sport climbers versus traditional climbers

 

40 –

Alternative Live System

 

Talk [Lingocloud]

Contacts

Ricardo Jardim

Steven Bowler